The amount of time an activity can slip without delaying project completion — Total float relates to project finish; free float relates to the next activity.

PMP Preparation

PMP Question Bank — 120+ practice questions

Q: Which document formally authorises the existence of a project and provides the project manager with authority?

Project charter — The charter is the formal authorisation. The business case justifies it; the charter authorises it.

Q: Who develops the project charter?

The sponsor with input from the PM — The sponsor signs the charter; the PM typically drafts it with the sponsor.

Q: When should the project manager be assigned?

Before the charter is signed where possible — Early PM assignment improves charter quality and stakeholder identification.

Q: Which output of Initiating is most useful for early stakeholder engagement?

Stakeholder register — The stakeholder register is created during Initiating and drives engagement strategy.

Q: Which document presents the financial justification for the project?

Business case — The business case quantifies justification and feeds the charter.

Q: Which is NOT typically part of the project charter?

Detailed WBS — The detailed WBS is a Planning output, not a charter element.

Q: What is the purpose of the Identify Stakeholders process?

To document stakeholders' interests, involvement and impact — Identify Stakeholders documents interests, expectations and impact to drive engagement.

Q: An assumption log is started in which process?

Develop Project Charter — The assumption log is initially created in Develop Project Charter and updated throughout.

Q: Benefits management plan describes:

How and when benefits will be delivered and measured — The benefits management plan defines target benefits, owners, metrics and timing.

Q: Which of these is an enterprise environmental factor?

Organisational risk appetite — Risk appetite is an EEF; lessons learned are OPAs.

Exam-style questions written by certified practitioners. Each answer includes a worked explanation and is tagged by knowledge area and difficulty.

Showing 120 of 120 questions.

InitiatingEasyQ1

Which document formally authorises the existence of a project and provides the project manager with authority?

InitiatingMediumQ2

Who develops the project charter?

InitiatingEasyQ3

When should the project manager be assigned?

InitiatingMediumQ4

Which output of Initiating is most useful for early stakeholder engagement?

InitiatingEasyQ5

Which document presents the financial justification for the project?

InitiatingMediumQ6

Which is NOT typically part of the project charter?

InitiatingMediumQ7

What is the purpose of the Identify Stakeholders process?

InitiatingHardQ8

An assumption log is started in which process?

InitiatingEasyQ9

Benefits management plan describes:

InitiatingMediumQ10

Which of these is an enterprise environmental factor?

InitiatingMediumQ11

Which of these is an organisational process asset?

InitiatingHardQ12

A sponsor signs the charter but later asks the PM to change a strategic objective. The PM should first:

PlanningEasyQ13

Which document defines what is included and excluded from the project?

PlanningMediumQ14

The WBS is decomposed to the level of:

PlanningEasyQ15

Which technique decomposes scope hierarchically?

PlanningMediumQ16

Which best describes a milestone?

PlanningMediumQ17

Three-point estimating uses which formula (PERT beta)?

PlanningHardQ18

Standard deviation in PERT is calculated as:

PlanningMediumQ19

What is the primary purpose of the network diagram?

PlanningEasyQ20

What is total float?

PlanningMediumQ21

Schedule compression by adding resources to critical activities is called:

PlanningMediumQ22

Fast-tracking primarily increases which risk?

PlanningEasyQ23

Which estimating technique uses statistical relationships between historical data and other variables?

PlanningEasyQ24

Analogous estimating is:

PlanningMediumQ25

Which is the most accurate estimating technique?

PlanningHardQ26

Reserve analysis distinguishes between:

PlanningMediumQ27

Cost aggregation produces:

PlanningEasyQ28

The Plan Quality Management process focuses on:

PlanningMediumQ29

The cost of quality (COQ) includes:

PlanningMediumQ30

RACI is a type of:

PlanningMediumQ31

Communications channels for n stakeholders:

PlanningMediumQ32

Risk appetite is best described as:

PlanningMediumQ33

EMV is calculated as:

PlanningHardQ34

Which risk response transfers ownership of a threat to a third party?

PlanningMediumQ35

Which is an opportunity response strategy?

PlanningMediumQ36

Plan Procurement Management produces:

PlanningHardQ37

Which contract type carries the highest risk for the seller?

PlanningHardQ38

Which contract type carries the highest risk for the buyer?

PlanningMediumQ39

Stakeholder engagement levels are:

PlanningEasyQ40

The Requirements Traceability Matrix links:

ExecutingEasyQ41

Which process focuses on building, developing and managing the project team?

ExecutingMediumQ42

A team is in the storming stage of Tuckman. Best response?

ExecutingMediumQ43

Co-location is most beneficial because it:

ExecutingEasyQ44

Most effective conflict resolution technique is:

ExecutingMediumQ45

Which is a leadership style focused on empowering teams to take ownership?

ExecutingEasyQ46

Quality assurance focuses on:

ExecutingMediumQ47

A key output of Manage Communications is:

ExecutingMediumQ48

Direct and Manage Project Work produces:

ExecutingMediumQ49

Which is the best response to an unidentified risk that materialises?

ExecutingHardQ50

Implement Risk Responses is in which Process Group?

ExecutingMediumQ51

Conduct Procurements output is:

ExecutingMediumQ52

Manage Stakeholder Engagement focuses on:

ExecutingMediumQ53

Which is a tool of Develop Team?

ExecutingMediumQ54

Which Executing process establishes ground rules and team charter?

ExecutingHardQ55

A team member misses repeated commitments. Best response?

ExecutingMediumQ56

Which is NOT a source of team conflict?

ExecutingEasyQ57

What is the difference between motivation and morale?

ExecutingMediumQ58

Tuckman stages in order:

ExecutingMediumQ59

Which Herzberg category includes pay and working conditions?

ExecutingMediumQ60

Maslow places self-actualisation at:

Monitoring & ControllingEasyQ61

Earned Value SPI = ?

Monitoring & ControllingEasyQ62

Earned Value CPI = ?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ63

SV = ?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ64

CV = ?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ65

EAC assuming typical performance:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ66

EAC assuming atypical (one-off) variance:

Monitoring & ControllingHardQ67

TCPI to meet BAC = ?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ68

VAC = ?

Monitoring & ControllingEasyQ69

Which is NOT a tool of Control Schedule?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ70

Variance analysis is performed in which process?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ71

Perform Integrated Change Control output includes:

Monitoring & ControllingHardQ72

EV = 80, PV = 100, AC = 95. SPI = ?

Monitoring & ControllingHardQ73

Same data: CPI = ?

Monitoring & ControllingHardQ74

Same data with BAC = 1000. EAC typical = ?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ75

Quality control output includes:

Monitoring & ControllingEasyQ76

Validate Scope produces:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ77

A control chart shows a run of seven points above the mean. This indicates:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ78

Which chart prioritises problems by frequency?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ79

Cause-and-effect diagram is also called:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ80

Control Risks is now called:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ81

Control Procurements key tools include:

Monitoring & ControllingHardQ82

An approved change request requires updates to which baseline first?

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ83

Forecasting in Control Costs produces:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ84

Trend analysis examines:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ85

A negative SV with positive CV typically means:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ86

BEI (Baseline Execution Index) measures:

Monitoring & ControllingHardQ87

If CPI = 1.0 and SPI = 0.9, the project is:

Monitoring & ControllingMediumQ88

Work performance reports are produced in:

ClosingEasyQ89

Which process formally ends the project?

ClosingMediumQ90

Lessons learned are documented:

ClosingMediumQ91

Final product or service transition occurs in:

ClosingMediumQ92

Procurement closure precedes administrative closure because:

ClosingEasyQ93

Final report is an output of:

ClosingMediumQ94

Knowledge transfer is part of:

ClosingMediumQ95

Cancelled projects still require:

ClosingMediumQ96

Which is NOT typically an output of closure?

ClosingHardQ97

Customer refuses to sign acceptance at closure. PM should:

ClosingMediumQ98

Phase gate review primarily decides:

ClosingMediumQ99

Benefits realisation typically occurs:

ClosingMediumQ100

The single best source of lessons learned is:

Professional ResponsibilityEasyQ101

A vendor offers the PM an expensive gift. Best response:

Professional ResponsibilityMediumQ102

PMI Code of Ethics core values are:

Professional ResponsibilityMediumQ103

You discover a colleague falsified progress data. You should:

Professional ResponsibilityMediumQ104

You are asked to certify a milestone you know is not complete. You should:

Professional ResponsibilityMediumQ105

Cultural difference makes a team member uncomfortable with public praise. PM should:

Professional ResponsibilityHardQ106

A government client demands an undocumented fee for permit. PM should:

Professional ResponsibilityMediumQ107

PMI requires PMP holders to:

Professional ResponsibilityMediumQ108

Fairness in PMI ethics requires you to:

Professional ResponsibilityHardQ109

You are offered a role where you would have to misrepresent your experience. You should:

Professional ResponsibilityMediumQ110

Your project will pollute a local water source legally but unethically. You should:

AgileEasyQ111

Velocity in agile measures:

AgileMediumQ112

Burndown chart shows:

AgileMediumQ113

Product Owner is responsible for:

AgileMediumQ114

Scrum Master role:

AgileMediumQ115

Definition of Done is set by:

AgileMediumQ116

Daily stand-up duration:

AgileHardQ117

Hybrid project: which earned value technique works best?

AgileMediumQ118

Sprint retrospective focuses on:

ProcurementMediumQ119

A bidder conference is used to:

ProcurementMediumQ120

Make-or-buy analysis is part of:

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